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Old 09-12-2016, 04:12 PM
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Default Re: Declines in Teen Pregnancy Risk Entirely Driven by Improved Contraceptive Use

Originally Posted by foundit66 View Post
Gee lurch.
You keep avoiding this question...
So do you consider these guy's storage units as "pregnant"?
I'm not "avoiding this question", I'm ignoring a stupid non-sequitur you posted in an attempt to move the goal posts and I will continue to do so.

I pointed out that the head doctor on your "study" clearly has religious motivations. You ignore that fact

I'm not ignoring it, I'm pointing out that the study was done by five doctors. Are they all religiously motivated? How about the 1000+ OB/GYN's that replied, are they all religiously motivated? How about the other two doctors and the non-religious hospital I quoted, are they all religiously motivated?

By your approach, if a woman goes in to have an embryo implanted, she would be declared "pregnant" immediately after the procedure completed.
It's not "my" definition, it is the definition provided to me by hospitals, doctors, and medical dictionaries. Argue with them.

But in the real world, the woman has to come back later to confirm the pregnancy.
According to the definition provided by doctors and hospitals, she would be coming back to confirm she was still pregnant.

The guy who hates polls suddenly wants to believe a mailed questionnaire response because it's convenient for him...
Right, because a specific medical question submitted to 1000+ OB/GYN's for answers is the exact same thing as a political poll submitted to a handful of random people representing about 1/1000000 of the population.

There is no way to conclude anything from that methodology.
Thinking people can conclude that many, possibly most, OB/GYN's believe pregnancy starts at fertilization.

First off, as I've already addressed but you've ignored, the methodology involved is pure crap.
You can't just blindly send out mail and hope that the responses will be representative.
You specifically said "The article is amusing in that it never tells you how many people actually responded to the questionnaires.". I addressed that statement by informing you that the article included a link to the study that gave exactly that info.
They didn't blindly send out anything. They sent a specific question to almost two thousand of the people most knowledgeable about the subject. If you can't see the value in that, then it would seem your bias is impenetrable.

Without that, you've just given the opinions of a little over 5% of all OB/GYNs. Nothing more.
But I think it would have been fascinating to ask them in the same questionnaire their opinions on abortion.
Considering some of the political polls I've seen you reference, I'd say 5% is an astronomically high sampling.
As for their opinion on abortion, not that it is relevant to this discussion, according to your beloved ACOG, who did (gasp) a survey of OB/GYN's, not very many of them are willing to perform abortions.
Abortion Is Legal, but What Percentage of Ob-gyns Will Provide One? - Freakonomics Freakonomics

So you posted a study, therefore my study is untrue?

Or is it that I posted a study, and I can blindly allege that made your study untrue?
When did you post a study? Do you mean that position paper from ACOG? That isn't and shouldn't be confused with a study.
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